A 33-year-old man with a 2-year history of Crohn ileocolitis comes to the clinic with left-sided flank pain that started in the morning. The pain is 8 on a scale of 0-10 in intensity and is characterized as sharp. The pain is also colicky and radiates to the left groin. The patient has no nausea or vomiting. He is in moderate distress and has trouble lying still during the examination. Urinalysis shows hematuria. A day later, the patient passes a urinary stone. Abdominal imaging reveals several additional kidney stones. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's kidney stones?
A) Defective amino acid transport
B) Increased bone resorption
C) Rapid cell turnover
D) Reduced intestinal calcium oxalate formation
E) Urinary tract infection
Correct Answer:
Verified
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