A 52-year-old man comes to the office due to diarrhea. For the past 3 months, he has had loose, brown, watery stools 4 or 5 times a day; it is associated with postprandial bloating. The patient has no vomiting, melena, hematochezia, or unexpected weight changes. He was diagnosed 10 years ago with systemic sclerosis, which presented with sclerodactyly and Raynaud phenomenon. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. The abdomen is visibly distended but nontender and without rebound or guarding. His symptoms dramatically improve after treatment with oral antibiotics. Which of the following is most likely responsible for this patient's diarrhea?
A) Defective structure of apoproteins
B) Impaired pancreatic enzyme release
C) Maldigestion in the intestinal lumen
D) Pancreatic enzyme inactivation
Correct Answer:
Verified
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