A 56-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department due to several days of progressive dyspnea, productive cough, and fever. Today, her son found her very short of breath and obtunded. The patient has a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and long-standing rheumatoid arthritis. Examination reveals bilateral pneumonia and severe respiratory distress. The patient is lethargic without focal neurologic deficits. Urgent endotracheal intubation is performed for mechanical ventilation, and the patient is started on broad-spectrum antibiotics. Repeat examination 2 hours later shows that she has developed areflexic, flaccid paralysis of all extremities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the neurologic deficits in this patient?
A) Cerebral septic emboli
B) Diabetic neuropathy
C) Guillain-Barré syndrome
D) Malignant hyperthermia
E) Vertebral subluxation
Correct Answer:
Verified
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