A 37-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 28 weeks gestation comes to the office due to leakage of urine. The patient has had intermittent leakage with cough but no dysuria or hematuria. She reports normal fetal movement and has had an uncomplicated pregnancy. Four years ago, the patient had a spontaneous vaginal delivery of a 3500 g (7 lb 11 oz) neonate. The patient has no chronic medical conditions or prior surgeries. Vital signs are normal. Prepregnancy BMI was 32 kg/m2. She has gained 15.8 kg (34.8 lb) during this pregnancy. The abdomen is gravid, and there is no suprapubic tenderness. Urinalysis is negative for blood, leukocyte esterase, and nitrite. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism for this patient's urinary incontinence?
A) Bladder outlet obstruction
B) Detrusor muscle hyperactivity
C) Impaired detrusor contractility
D) Increased intraabdominal pressure
E) Sciatic nerve root compression
F) Ureteral compression
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q334: A 32-year-old man with a history of
Q335: A 38-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 2,
Q336: A 16-year-old girl comes to the emergency
Q337: A 19-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Q338: A 28-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2,
Q340: A 28-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 2,
Q341: A 14-year-old girl is brought to the
Q342: A 76-year-old man has had worsening shortness
Q343: A 57-year-old man is being evaluated for
Q344: A research study is conducted to evaluate
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents