A 45-year-old man comes to the office for an annual medical visit. The patient has had prediabetes for the last 2 years. He feels well and takes no medications but has gained weight since his last visit a year ago. The patient has a strong family history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. Blood pressure is 124/78 mm Hg and BMI is 32 kg/m2. Laboratory results show a fasting blood glucose of 157 mg/dL and serum creatinine of 0.7 mg/dL. Hemoglobin A1c is 7.4%. Urine assay shows no detectable albuminuria. Which of the following renal changes is most likely present in this patient at this time?
A) Decreased peritubular capillary oncotic pressure
B) Decreased intraglomerular capillary pressure
C) Glomerular atrophy
D) Increased glomerular filtration rate
E) Increased oncotic pressure in Bowman's space
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q416: A 60-year-old woman is brought to the
Q417: A 66-year-old man with poorly controlled type
Q418: A 63-year-old man comes to the office
Q419: A 48-year-old, previously healthy woman is seen
Q420: A 55-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q422: A 43-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q423: A 4-week-old, full-term boy is brought to
Q424: A 65-year-old man is being evaluated in
Q425: A 32-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q426: A 76-year-old man comes to the hospital
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents