A 36-year-old woman comes to the office due to frequent urination since an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis 2 months ago. Most of her symptoms, including dizziness, leg weakness, and numbness, have improved with corticosteroid treatment. However, she has continued difficulty holding urine, and on several occasions has passed a small amount of urine while trying to reach the bathroom. She has no urine leakage during coughing or sneezing. The patient has no other medical problems. Her abdomen is soft and nontender. Neurological examination shows hyperreflexia and increased tone in the lower extremities. Her postvoid residual volume is low.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for her urinary symptoms?
A) Detrusor muscle weakness
B) Hyperglycemia-induced osmotic diuresis
C) Low-grade cystitis causing bladder irritation
D) Pelvic floor laxity and urethral sphincter dysfunction
E) Uninhibited bladder contraction
Correct Answer:
Verified
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