A 77-year-old man comes to the office after he was found to have high blood pressure during a health fair. The patient denies any medical problems and feels proud that he has not needed to see a doctor for many years. His blood pressure is 170/70 mm Hg and pulse is 74/min. Other physical examination findings are normal. The patient is started on a medication to treat his hypertension. During his follow-up visit 3 weeks later, he reports bilateral leg swelling. He has no chest pain, shortness of breath, or abdominal symptoms. His blood pressure is 135/65 mm Hg and pulse is 80/min. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal, but there is bilateral, symmetrical, 2+ pitting lower extremity edema. Laboratory studies show serum creatinine of 0.8 mg/dL, and urinalysis is negative for proteinuria. Which of the following was most likely prescribed to treat this patient's hypertension?
A) Amlodipine
B) Eplerenone
C) Hydrochlorothiazide
D) Ramipril
E) Torsemide
F) Valsartan
Correct Answer:
Verified
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