A 54-year-old man comes to the office due to new-onset muscle cramps. The patient has a history of hypertension and was started on hydrochlorothiazide 4 weeks ago. Blood pressure is 138/86 mm Hg and pulse is 78/min. Examination shows no abnormalities. Based on his most recent laboratory results, triamterene is added to the current therapy. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of this medication?
A) Blocking renal tubular epithelial sodium channels
B) Decreased aldosterone production
C) Increased intestinal absorption of potassium
D) Inhibiting aldosterone receptor activity in renal collecting duct
E) Inhibiting Na+/K+ ATPase activity in skeletal muscle
Correct Answer:
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