A 43-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to a 3-day history of persistent headaches. The patient has a history of hypertension and has had poor medical follow-up. Blood pressure is 224/115 mm Hg and pulse is 67/min. He appears mildly confused during the physical examination, but no focal neurologic deficits are noted. Funduscopic examination shows bilateral papilledema. Serum creatinine is 1.4 mg/dL. An intravenous medication is initiated that causes arteriolar dilation while also improving renal perfusion and increasing natriuresis. Which of the following agents is most likely being used in this patient?
A) Esmolol
B) Fenoldopam
C) Hydralazine
D) Nitroglycerin
E) Phenylephrine
Correct Answer:
Verified
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