A 64-year-old man comes to the office due to a 6-month history of difficulty urinating, with frequent straining and dribbling. His symptoms have increased over time and affect his quality of life significantly. The physician prescribes a drug that gives the patient moderate symptomatic relief. However, he also experiences a decrease in libido and impaired erectile function. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of action of this patient's medication?
A) Decreased dihydrotestosterone synthesis
B) Decreased Leydig cell androgen synthesis
C) Decreased Leydig cell stimulation by LH
D) Decreased peripheral androgen aromatization
E) Impaired androgen-receptor interaction
F) Impaired second messenger action
Correct Answer:
Verified
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