A 44-year-old man comes to the office for follow-up of type 2 diabetes mellitus. He was diagnosed with diabetes 4 years ago and has been taking metformin since then. Six months ago, a new antidiabetic agent was added due to suboptimal glycemic control. Today, the patient is happy because he has lost 7 kg (15.4 lb) without any changes in diet or activity since the new therapy was started. His only symptoms are occasional nausea, vomiting, and a prolonged sensation of fullness after eating. Vital signs are within normal limits with no orthostatic changes. BMI is 34 kg/m2. Physical examination shows normal heart and lung sounds, a nontender abdomen, and normal deep tendon reflexes and sensory examination. Laboratory testing reveals normal renal function studies and hemoglobin A1c of 7.2%. If this patient's weight loss is due to the new medication, which of the following agents is most likely responsible?
A) Basal-bolus insulin therapy
B) Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitor
C) Glucagon-like peptide-1 agonist
D) Sulfonylurea
E) Thiazolidinedione
Correct Answer:
Verified
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