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A 44-Year-Old Man Comes to the Office for Follow-Up of Type

Question 129

Multiple Choice

A 44-year-old man comes to the office for follow-up of type 2 diabetes mellitus.  He was diagnosed with diabetes 4 years ago and has been taking metformin since then.  Six months ago, a new antidiabetic agent was added due to suboptimal glycemic control.  Today, the patient is happy because he has lost 7 kg (15.4 lb) without any changes in diet or activity since the new therapy was started.  His only symptoms are occasional nausea, vomiting, and a prolonged sensation of fullness after eating.  Vital signs are within normal limits with no orthostatic changes.  BMI is 34 kg/m2.  Physical examination shows normal heart and lung sounds, a nontender abdomen, and normal deep tendon reflexes and sensory examination.  Laboratory testing reveals normal renal function studies and hemoglobin A1c of 7.2%.  If this patient's weight loss is due to the new medication, which of the following agents is most likely responsible?


A) Basal-bolus insulin therapy
B) Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitor
C) Glucagon-like peptide-1 agonist
D) Sulfonylurea
E) Thiazolidinedione

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