A 25-year-old man comes to the office due to bilateral hip pain for the last 6 months. The pain started insidiously and has progressively worsened to the point where he has difficulty walking. The patient has no history of trauma. Medical history is significant for a seizure disorder, for which he has taken phenytoin for the past 5 years. The patient does not use tobacco or alcohol. X-ray of the hip joint shows bilateral, symmetric, narrow radiolucent lines of 2-3 mm in width with sclerotic borders as well as diffuse cortical thinning. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's current condition?
A) Decreased aromatization of testosterone to estrogen
B) Drug-induced decoupling of bone resorption and bone formation
C) Increased drug binding to intestinal phosphorus with fecal excretion
D) Increased metabolism of 25-hydroxyvitamin D to inactive metabolites
Correct Answer:
Verified
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