A 62-year-old woman comes to the office due to a change in bowel habits. For 2 months, she has had bowel movements once every 5 or 6 days. The patient describes her stools as hard and lumpy and of small volume; defecation is uncomfortable. She has no trouble passing gas and has no other symptoms, including no nausea, vomiting, or weight changes. The patient was admitted to the hospital 3 months ago for acute diverticulitis, and her hospital course was complicated by new-onset atrial fibrillation. Colonoscopy a month after hospitalization revealed sigmoid diverticulosis but no masses or polyps. The patient takes fiber supplements, diltiazem, and apixaban. She does not use tobacco or alcohol. Vital signs are within normal limits. Cardiac auscultation reveals an irregular heart rhythm but no murmurs. Abdominal examination is significant for mild distension. Which of the following best explains this patient's symptoms?
A) Alterations in colonic microbiome
B) Gastrocolic reflex impairment
C) Inappropriate contraction of pelvic floor muscles
D) Medication adverse effects
E) Posterior vaginal wall prolapse
F) Sigmoid volvulus
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q175: A 45-year-old woman comes to the office
Q176: A 25-year-old man comes to the office
Q177: A 72-year-old man comes to the office
Q178: A 42-year-old man comes to the office
Q179: A 42-year-old woman comes to the office
Q181: A 34-year-old man is evaluated for several
Q182: A 57-year-old female presents to the emergency
Q183: A 64-year-old woman is hospitalized for elective
Q184: A 56-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q185: A 34-year-old man is found to have
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents