A 62-year-old man comes to the office due to decreased libido and failure to achieve satisfactory erections. The patient has coronary artery disease and heart failure with reduced ejection fraction and was prescribed spironolactone therapy several months ago. Other medications include aspirin, lisinopril, furosemide, and metoprolol. Blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg and pulse is 70/min. Oxygen saturation is 95% on room air. Examination shows a left ventricular S3 and trace pitting ankle edema. Breast examination demonstrates bilateral enlargement with mild tenderness. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's current symptoms?
A) Decreased hepatic degradation of estrogen
B) Decreased pituitary release of gonadotropins
C) Impaired binding of testosterone to its receptor
D) Increased estrogen production by the adrenal glands
E) Increased hCG-mediated Leydig cell dysfunction
Correct Answer:
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