A 52-year-old man comes to the office for an annual preventive visit. He has a history of seasonal allergies, and has recently started taking a medication that has improved his runny nose, sneezing, and watery eyes. Medical history is remarkable for diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus and eczema. He is not on any other medications. He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Examination shows a well-appearing man with flushed cheeks and dilated pupils. This patient's physical examination findings are best explained by which of the following mechanisms?
A) Antagonism of H1 receptors
B) Antagonism of H2 receptors
C) Antagonism of muscarinic receptors
D) Antagonism of nicotinic receptors
E) Stimulation of alpha-1 adrenoreceptors
Correct Answer:
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