A 62-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with a 1-hour history of sudden-onset severe headache and progressive lethargy. Medical history is significant for hypertension. Temperature is 37 C (98.6 F) , blood pressure is 180/95 mm Hg, pulse is 60/min, and respirations are 10/min. On physical examination, the patient responds to painful stimuli only but does not move his left extremities to pain. The right pupil is larger than the left and is sluggish to react. CT scan of the head shows right basal ganglia hemorrhage causing compression of the right lateral ventricle and shift of the midline structures. Blood cell counts, serum chemistry studies, and coagulation profile are within normal limits. Endotracheal intubation is performed for airway protection, and an intravenous bolus of mannitol is administered. Which of the following is the most likely acute effect of the medication given to this patient?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Correct Answer:
Verified
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