A 56-year-old man comes to the emergency department with acute onset of severe right foot pain. The pain is associated with local redness and swelling, but he has had no fever or recent trauma. The patient has never had similar symptoms. Medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus, mixed hyperlipidemia, hypertension, and coronary artery disease, for which he takes several medications. Physical examination shows a swollen, tender first metatarsophalangeal joint. Aspiration reveals a high leukocyte count, negative Gram stain, and numerous needle-shaped negatively birefringent crystals. Which of the following drugs is most likely to have precipitated this patient's condition?
A) Atorvastatin
B) Gemfibrozil
C) Hydrochlorothiazide
D) Losartan
E) Metformin
Correct Answer:
Verified
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