A 34-year-old man comes to the office for a follow-up visit. The patient has had type 1 diabetes since age 12 and is diligent in taking insulin to achieve good glycemic control. Over the past few months, he has had more frequent episodes of hypoglycemia despite no changes in his treatment, diet, or physical activity, but the episodes have been associated with less severe hypoglycemic symptoms compared to prior episodes. Physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory results show normal basic metabolic panel and serum TSH level. Hemoglobin A1c is 7.0%. Which of the following factors is primarily responsible for this patient's increased frequency of hypoglycemia?
A) Decreased epinephrine release
B) Decreased glucagon release
C) Decreased growth hormone release
D) Downregulation of insulin receptors
E) Upregulation of beta-adrenergic receptors
Correct Answer:
Verified
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