A 28-year-old woman comes to the office due to a 4-month history of amenorrhea. She has also had a whitish nipple discharge from both breasts. The patient has taken several pregnancy tests at home that have been negative. She has also had increased fatigue, depressed mood, and weight gain over this time. The patient has had no headaches or vision changes. She has no prior medical problems and takes no medications. On physical examination, there is thinning of the outer third of the eyebrows. The thyroid is enlarged and nontender to palpation. Abdominal and pelvic examinations are normal. The skin appears dry. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most likely mechanism causing this patient's elevated prolactin level?
A) Activation of lactotrophs by antithyroid peroxidase antibodies
B) Binding of dopamine receptors by antithyroid peroxidase antibodies
C) Inhibition of dopamine release by TSH
D) Stimulation of lactotrophs by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
E) TRH-induced overproduction of dopamine
F) TSH-mediated activation of lactotrophs
Correct Answer:
Verified
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