A 27-year-old woman in her 2nd trimester of pregnancy comes to the office due to constipation. Her stools have become increasingly hard and pellet-like over the past few weeks; bowel movements before then were always regular. She also has mild crampy abdominal pain and bloating, both of which improve after defecation. Medical history and family history are both unremarkable. This is the patient's first pregnancy and has so far been uncomplicated. On physical examination, the abdomen appears gravid but nontender. Which of the following best explains this patient's symptoms?
A) Decreased colonic smooth muscle activity
B) Decreased parasympathetic input to the colon
C) Impaired relaxation of pelvic floor muscles
D) Thickening of intestinal secretions
E) Thinning of the rectovaginal septum
Correct Answer:
Verified
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