A 45-year-old woman comes to the office due to a 6-month history of abdominal bloating, excessive flatulence, and watery diarrhea. Past medical history is significant for long-standing type 1 diabetes mellitus managed with insulin. Vital signs are normal. Abdominal examination shows no abnormalities. Jejunal aspirate is obtained during upper gastrointestinal endoscopy by placing a sterile catheter; culture of the aspirate reveals >10,000 colony-forming units/mL of Bacteroides species. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's current symptoms?
A) Excessive bile acid synthesis
B) Excessive gastric acid production
C) Excessive pancreatic proteolytic enzyme secretion
D) Impaired migrating motor complex function
E) Spasm of the ileocecal valve
Correct Answer:
Verified
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