A 60-year-old man comes to the office to discuss sexual symptoms. Eight weeks ago, the patient was admitted to the hospital with a non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction, and a drug-eluting stent was successfully placed in the culprit coronary artery. The patient now has no cardiovascular symptoms, including when climbing stairs or taking long walks. Since discharge, he has had difficulty maintaining an erection and delayed ejaculation during sexual intercourse, but he has normal libido and regular nocturnal erections. Medications include metoprolol, rosuvastatin, aspirin, and ticagrelor. Vital signs and physical examination are normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's sexual dysfunction?
A) Aortoiliac occlusion
B) Bladder neck obstruction
C) Metoprolol adverse effect
D) Psychogenic sexual dysfunction
E) Testosterone deficiency
Correct Answer:
Verified
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