A 35-year-old man is seen in the office due to heaviness in his lower abdomen. He has a history of bilateral cryptorchidism in childhood and underwent orchiopexy at age 14 months. The patient is otherwise healthy and takes no medications. Physical examination shows enlargement of both testicles. Scrotal ultrasound reveals bilateral testicular masses consistent with testicular germ cell tumor. CT scans of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis do not reveal any lymph node metastasis. The patient undergoes bilateral orchiectomy. Which of the following long-term physiologic changes are most likely to occur as a result of treatment in this patient?
A) Decrease in subcutaneous fat
B) Decreased prostate glandular volume
C) Increase in lean body weight
D) Increase in trabecular bone density
E) Increased prostate stroma volume
Correct Answer:
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