A 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension is brought to the emergency department for acute onset of right-sided weakness and slurred speech, which started an hour ago. He takes no prescription medications and has no history of bleeding.
The patient's blood pressure is 170/96 mm Hg. On examination, he has right lower facial droop, dysarthria, and diminished strength in his right upper and lower extremities.
A non-contrast head CT is negative. His finger stick blood glucose is 90 mg/dL. Intravenous tissue plasminogen activator is administered.
Assuming this patient's symptoms do not resolve rapidly, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Aspirin after 24 hours and subcutaneous low-dose enoxaparin now
B) Aspirin now and subcutaneous low-dose enoxaparin after 24 hours
C) Both aspirin and subcutaneous low-dose enoxaparin after 24 hours
D) Both aspirin and subcutaneous low-dose enoxaparin now
Correct Answer:
Verified
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