A 28-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of worsening shortness of breath and wheezing for the last 2 days. She denies fever, chills, or chest pain. She has a history of asthma and her symptoms occur mainly during the winter months. She denies nocturnal asthma episodes. She uses an albuterol inhaler intermittently, which usually controls her symptoms very well. However, over the last few hours she has taken several puffs of her inhaler, with no improvement of her current symptoms. She has no other medical problems and takes no other medications. She does not use tobacco or illicit drugs.
Her temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F) , blood pressure is 128/76 mm Hg, pulse is 108/min, and respirations are 20/min. She is in moderate respiratory distress. Lung examination reveals bilateral wheezing and prolonged expiration with use of accessory muscles. Her peak flow is 190 L/min.
She is given continuous nebulized albuterol, a dose of corticosteroids, and is admitted to the hospital. The following day, she has marked improvement of her symptoms and there are no wheezes heard on auscultation. She wants to go home.
Apart from a short acting beta agonist, which of the following is the most appropriate discharge medication for this patient?
A) A short course of oral steroids
B) A short course of oral steroids followed by inhaled corticosteroids
C) A short course of oral steroids and inhaled ipratropium
D) No additional therapy
E) Oral leukotriene antagonist
Correct Answer:
Verified
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