A 76-year-old man is brought to the hospital due to a 1-day history of confusion. For the past 3 days, he has also had nasal congestion, sore throat, and a non-productive cough. Family members say that he has been acting strangely, asking the same questions repeatedly, talking to his deceased brother, and getting out of bed multiple times at night. The patient has a history of hypertension and benign prostate hyperplasia. His medications include amlodipine, tamsulosin, and over-the-counter cold medicine. He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.
His temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 140/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 92/min. On examination, the patient appears to be in distress and is disoriented. Moderate pharyngeal erythema without exudate is present. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. The abdomen is soft with tenderness and a palpable mass in the suprapubic region. His prostate is enlarged and smooth. There is no neck rigidity and he moves all extremities with equal strength. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) CT scan of abdomen/pelvis
B) Empiric moxifloxacin
C) Intravenous normal saline
D) Lumbar puncture
E) Urinary catheterization
Correct Answer:
Verified
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