A 24-year-old woman comes to the office due to a painful lesion in her mouth. She has had similar lesions once or twice a year over the last several years that caused significant discomfort with chewing and lasted 6-7 days. She has no associated rashes, joint pains or swelling, or genital lesions. She does not have any significant past medical history and does not use tobacco or alcohol. The patient is HIV-negative. Her mother has rheumatoid arthritis. Physical examination findings are shown in the image below.
Complete blood count and comprehensive metabolic panel are within normal limits. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 12 mm/hr.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies
B) Antinuclear antibodies
C) Colonoscopy
D) Thyroid function tests
E) Topical treatment
Correct Answer:
Verified
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