A 24-year-old woman comes to the office for an annual examination. Two weeks ago, the patient was evaluated at an urgent care center for lower abdominal pain and vaginal discharge. Pelvic examination at that time showed mucopurulent cervical discharge and cervical friability. Nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT) was positive for Chlamydia trachomatis. Testing for gonorrheal infection was negative. The patient was treated with doxycycline orally twice daily for 7 days. Her partner also tested positive for Chlamydia infection and received doxycycline therapy. The patient's symptoms resolved after 7 days of treatment.
The patient has had no sexual activity since her last visit and is currently asymptomatic. As part of her annual examination, a Pap test and NAAT for both Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are performed. The Pap test is normal and the NAAT is positive for Chlamydia trachomatis.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's positive test result?
A) False-positive C trachomatis test result
B) Inadequate treatment of cervicitis
C) Infection from a new sexual partner
D) Infection with doxycycline-resistant C trachomatis
E) Tubo-ovarian abscess
Correct Answer:
Verified
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