A 23-year-old woman comes to the office due to thick, yellow vaginal discharge for the past few days. She has had no fever or chills and has not recently changed personal hygiene items or sexual practices.
The patient takes oral contraceptives, does not use condoms, and has had the same male sexual partner for the past 3 years. Pap testing last year was normal.
On speculum examination, the cervix is erythematous and swollen and bleeds when touched with a cotton applicator. Pelvic examination reveals a small uterus with no cervical motion tenderness and no adnexal tenderness. The rest of the physical examination is normal.
Wet mount microscopy shows white blood cells, a few nonmotile bacteria, no clue cells, and no hyphae. A urine pregnancy test is negative.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Cervical histopathology and cytology
B) Empiric azithromycin plus ciprofloxacin
C) Empiric ceftriaxone plus doxycycline
D) Empiric metronidazole
E) Gram stain testing of cervical fluid
Correct Answer:
Verified
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