A 68-year-old woman is seen in the clinic for a 5-day history of diarrhea. The patient's stools are small, watery, and contain no blood or mucus. She has had no fever, dizziness, nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain. Her other medical problems include hypertension, osteoporosis, gastroesophageal reflux, and stress incontinence. Several years ago, the patient had aortic valve replacement with a mechanical valve due to stenosis from a bicuspid aortic valve. Current medications include aspirin, amlodipine, alendronate, warfarin, and calcium and vitamin D supplements. The patient has not traveled recently or eaten anything unusual.
She is afebrile; blood pressure is 132/70 mm Hg and pulse is 78/min with no orthostatic changes. The remainder of the examination is within normal limits.
Laboratory results are as follows:
In addition to careful follow-up of INR, which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Hold warfarin and give an oral dose of vitamin K
B) Hold warfarin and give intravenous prothrombin complex
C) Hold warfarin and give vitamin K by slow intravenous infusion
D) Lower the dose of warfarin
E) Omit next 2 doses of warfarin only
Correct Answer:
Verified
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