A 27-year-old man comes to the office to discuss HIV prevention. One of his sexual partners is an HIV-positive man who intermittently adheres to antiretroviral therapy, and the patient also has sexual encounters with men of unknown HIV status. The patient does not reliably use condoms due to loss of sensation during intercourse. He is concerned about his risk of HIV infection and is interested in the use of antiretroviral therapy or pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) to prevent contracting the disease. The patient has had no recent fever, weight loss, rash, or malaise. He was diagnosed with gonococcal urethritis 3 months ago and was treated with antibiotics; he has no other medical history. The patient occasionally uses intranasal cocaine prior to intercourse and drinks a few beers on weekends. He does not use tobacco or injection drugs.
The patient's vital signs are within normal parameters, and physical examination is significant only for diffuse tattoos over the upper extremities. Serum chemistry is normal, and viral hepatitis screening is positive for hepatitis C IgG antibody alone. HIV testing is negative. After careful discussion about safe sex practices, which of the following is the most appropriate next step regarding PrEP use in this patient?
A) Advise against PrEP due to history of hepatitis C
B) Advise against PrEP due to illicit drug use
C) Advise against PrEP due to multiple sexual partners
D) Recommend PrEP using 2-drug regimen
E) Recommend PrEP using 3-drug regimen
Correct Answer:
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