A 50-year-old woman comes to the office due to lower extremity edema. The edema started about 6 weeks ago and has slowly progressed . Medical history is significant for hypertension, treated with metoprolol for 3 years. Two months ago, amlodipine was added because of inadequate blood pressure control with metoprolol alone. The patient does not use tobacco or alcohol. She has no known drug allergies. Blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg and pulse is 64/min. Physical examination reveals bilateral symmetric 3+ pitting edema of both lower extremities, without any skin changes or varicosities. Her neck vein pulsation is normal. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. Laboratory results are as follows:
Urinalysis is within normal limits. What is the most likely cause of the edema in this patient?
A) Heart failure
B) Liver disease
C) Renal disease
D) Venous insufficiency
E) Medication side effect
Correct Answer:
Verified
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