A 56-year-old woman comes to the office due to left lower extremity pain and swelling. One year ago, the patient had a provoked left femoropopliteal deep venous thrombosis and completed 6 months of antithrombotic therapy. Over the past 3 months, she has had slowly worsening intermittent pain, fatigue, and swelling of the left leg, especially toward the end of the day. Medical history is significant for obesity and tobacco use. Temperature is 36.6 C (97.9 F) , blood pressure is 122/74 mm Hg, pulse is 83/min, and respirations are 14/min. Oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Mild pitting edema is noted on left lower extremity examination. There are scattered dilated superficial veins, but no skin erythema or calf tenderness is present. The right lower extremity has no abnormalities. Lower extremity venous ultrasonography is negative for thrombus. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Arterial Doppler ultrasonography
B) Exercise and compression therapy
C) Inferior vena cava filter placement
D) Long-term antithrombotic therapy
E) Salt restriction and diuretics
F) Smoking cessation and cilostazol
Correct Answer:
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