A 62-year-old man comes to the office for a follow-up visit. He recently had episodes of sweating, headache, tremor, and palpitation while working in his backyard; his wife has noticed that he seems confused during these episodes. Medical history is notable for long-standing type 2 diabetes mellitus treated with insulin glargine and glipizide, hypertension, peripheral vascular disease, and hyperlipidemia. The patient also has chronic kidney disease, and his renal function has declined significantly over the past 2 years despite optimal glycemic control. Which of the following is most likely responsible for this patient's symptoms?
A) Angina pectoris
B) Catecholamine-secreting tumor
C) Insulin excess
D) Orthostatic hypotension
E) Panic attacks
F) Thyroid hormone overproduction
G) Vasovagal reaction
Correct Answer:
Verified
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