A 17-year-old girl comes to the office for evaluation of irregular menses. The patient reports irregular menses since menarche at age 13, and her menstrual cycle has become increasingly unpredictable. Over the past year, she has had 5 menstrual periods. Her most recent period was 6 weeks ago and it lasted 10 days, with heavy bleeding and large clots. The patient has also gained 10 kg (22 lb) over the last year and has been unable to lose weight despite changes in her diet. She has no medical problems and has had no surgeries. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg and pulse is 76/min. BMI is 28 kg/m2. Physical examination shows coarse hair along the chin. There is no thyromegaly or palpable neck masses. The abdomen is soft and nontender, with no striae or palpable masses. Deep tendon reflexes of the extremities are normal, and no pedal edema is present. Hemoglobin is 10.2 g/dL. TSH and prolactin levels are normal. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the best next step for addressing this patient's irregular menses?
A) Order CT scan of the adrenal gland
B) Prescribe combined oral contraceptives
C) Prescribe letrozole
D) Prescribe leuprolide
E) Prescribe levothyroxine
F) Prescribe spironolactone
Correct Answer:
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