A 54-year-old man comes to the office due to 2 weeks of progressive fever, exertional dyspnea, and nonproductive cough. The patient has a history of HIV infection but does not comply with antiretroviral therapy. Temperature is 38.9 C (102 F) , blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, pulse is 100/min, and respirations are 28/min. Pulse oximetry is 80% on room air. Oxygen saturation increases to 92% with the use of a 100% nonrebreather mask. Laboratory results are as follows:
CD4 count is 170/mm3 and lactate dehydrogenase level is 480 U/L. Chest x-ray reveals diffuse bilateral interstitial infiltrates. What is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Ceftriaxone
B) Initiation of antiretroviral treatment
C) Pentamidine and corticosteroids
D) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and corticosteroids
E) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole only
Correct Answer:
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