A 62-year-old woman comes to the office due to urinary frequency and burning during urination. The patient reports no fever, chills, nausea, back pain, or abdominal pain. Her medical history is significant for long-standing diabetes mellitus and hypertension, for which she takes metformin and lisinopril. The patient does not use tobacco or alcohol. Blood pressure is 149/100 mm Hg and heart rate is 70/min. Hematocrit is 43% and WBC count is 8,500/mm3. Creatinine is 1.1 mg/dL. Urinalysis results are as follows:
The patient is given a course of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Two weeks later, urinalysis reveals 2+ protein but no nitrites, white blood cells, or red blood cells. Her urinary symptoms have resolved. Repeat serum creatinine is 1.1 mg/dL. Which of the following is most likely responsible for her persistent urinalysis abnormality?
A) Acute inflammatory infiltrate in the kidney interstitium
B) Atherosclerotic narrowing of the renal arteries
C) Glomerular basement membrane changes
D) Insoluble crystal precipitation in the tubular lumen
E) Retrograde passage of urine into the renal pelvis
Correct Answer:
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