A 68-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to chest pain. The patient was hospitalized 2 weeks ago with chest pain and was diagnosed with a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction. Percutaneous coronary intervention was performed with placement of a drug-eluting stent in the left circumflex artery. The patient has taken all medications as prescribed, including aspirin and clopidogrel, and has limited physical activity to prevent "overexerting the heart." He was feeling well until last night when he began having sharp, left-sided chest pain, which worsens with deep inspiration. The patient also feels short of breath but has had no fever or cough. Other medical conditions include hypertension and hyperlipidemia. He smokes half a pack of cigarettes daily but has not smoked over the past 2 weeks. Temperature is 38.1 C (100.6 F) , blood pressure is 116/84 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 20/min. Oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. BMI is 30.2 kg/m2. The patient appears in mild respiratory distress. The lungs are clear on auscultation and there are no cardiac murmurs. There is mild right lower extremity edema, and the distal pulses are full. ECG shows sinus tachycardia with nonspecific T wave changes. Serum creatinine is 0.8 mg/dL and troponin I is 0.4 ng/mL (normal: <0.01) . Chest x-ray shows normal cardiac size, small left pleural effusion, and no lung opacities. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) CT pulmonary angiography
B) Emergency coronary angiography
C) Ibuprofen and colchicine therapy
D) Myocardial perfusion stress testing
E) Serial ECGs and troponin levels
Correct Answer:
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