A 72-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to intermittent chest pain for the last 2 days. She describes the pain as chest pressure associated with shortness of breath. She has never had similar symptoms. Her past medical history is significant for hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Physical examination reveals no heart murmurs. ECG shows normal sinus rhythm with T wave inversion in leads V4-V6. Initial troponin I level is undetectable. Two hours after the initial evaluation, she becomes unresponsive. Bilateral arm twitching is noted by the nurse. Her telemetry strip is shown on the image below.
Which of the following is the best next step in managing this patient?
A) Amiodarone
B) Defibrillation
C) Epinephrine
D) Fosphenytoin
E) Lidocaine
F) Magnesium sulfate
G) Synchronized cardioversion
Correct Answer:
Verified
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