A 67-year-old man comes to the hospital with acute-onset upper abdominal pain associated with nausea and vomiting. The patient was discharged 24 hours earlier after he underwent elective coronary angiography and stent placement due to left circumflex artery stenosis. He has been taking his prescribed medications and reports no chest pain, shortness of breath, or flank pain. His other medical problems include type 2 diabetes, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and peripheral vascular disease. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. His temperature is 37.7 C (99.9 F) , blood pressure is 134/88 mm Hg, pulse is 92/min, and respirations are 18/min. The abdomen is tender to palpation in the epigastric area. Bowel sounds are decreased. The skin over the lower extremities and toes appears mottled, reddish-blue, and reticulated but blanches on pressure. Laboratory results are as follows:
CT scan of the abdomen reveals diffuse enlargement of the pancreas. Abdominal ultrasonogram reveals normal-sized gallbladder and common bile duct without gallstones. The patient's pain is improved with a dose of intravenous morphine. Which of the following is the best therapy for this patient?
A) Elective cholecystectomy
B) Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
C) Intravenous antibiotics
D) Intravenous corticosteroids
E) Intravenous fluids and supportive care only
Correct Answer:
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