A 37-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to vomiting and severe lower abdominal pain. The patient developed sudden-onset, sharp, right lower quadrant pain after waking up this morning. The pain has increased despite taking acetaminophen, and now she has persistent vomiting. The patient has been undergoing clomiphene ovulation induction due to anovulatory infertility, and her last menstrual period was 5 weeks ago. She has no medical conditions and has had no surgeries. Temperature is 37.8 C (100 F) , blood pressure is 140/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 92/min. Abdominal examination shows tenderness over the right lower quadrant with guarding and rebound tenderness. On bimanual examination, there is tenderness in the right adnexa but no palpable masses or cervical motion tenderness. Hemoglobin level is 13 g/dL and leukocyte count is 16,000/mm3. Quantitative β-hCG is 2,840 mIU/mL. A transvaginal pelvic ultrasound shows a singleton gestation within the uterine cavity and normal bilateral adnexa with normal Doppler flow. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A) Acute appendicitis
B) Ectopic pregnancy
C) Hyperemesis gravidarum
D) Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
E) Ovarian torsion
Correct Answer:
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