A 36-year-old man comes to the office due to a month of diarrhea, nausea, and abdominal cramps. He has also had night sweats, arthralgias, and weight loss of 6.8 kg (15 lb) during this period. Pink, oval lesions developed on the patient's upper chest, neck, and face at the beginning of the illness but have now resolved. Temperature is 38.2 C (100.8 F) , blood pressure is 112/74 mm Hg, pulse is 104/min, and respirations are 16/min. Nontender lymphadenopathy is present in the cervical and inguinal lymph nodes. There are no joint effusions or skin lesions. The abdomen is soft and nontender with no organomegaly. Which of the following is the best next step in evaluation of this patient?
A) Antinuclear antibody screen
B) Colonoscopy with biopsies
C) HIV testing
D) Lymph node biopsy
E) Tissue transglutaminase antibodies
Correct Answer:
Verified
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