A 40-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle collision. He was the restrained driver when his car was hit on the side by a truck. He did not injure his head or lose consciousness but had severe left leg pain with intensity rated at 10 out of 10. The patient has a history of injection heroin use but has not used any illicit drugs since completing a methadone rehabilitation program 2 years ago. Temperature is 37.1 C (98.8 F) , blood pressure is 147/86 mm Hg, pulse is 114/min, and respirations are 18/min. There is an open fracture of the left leg with some external bleeding but no other injuries. Wound debridement and external fixation of the fracture are planned. The patient is given a dose of intravenous ketorolac. One hour later, his pain is persistent. Which of the following is the most appropriate analgesic pharmacotherapy for this patient?
A) Additional dose of ketorolac
B) Intravenous acetaminophen
C) Intravenous morphine
D) Oral gabapentin
E) Oral methadone
F) Transdermal fentanyl patch
Correct Answer:
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