A 32-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to worsening shortness of breath. The patient has a 20-year history of asthma. He developed low-grade fever, rhinorrhea, and generalized body aches 4 days ago, followed by increasing dyspnea and cough since yesterday. The patient's as-needed reliever inhaler provided little help. Temperature is 37 C (98.6 F) , blood pressure is 155/88 mm Hg, pulse is 120/min, and respirations are 28/min. Pulse oximetry is 84% on room air and 92% on 3 L/min of oxygen. The patient speaks in clipped phrases and uses the accessory muscles of respiration. Examination shows diminished breath sounds bilaterally with scattered expiratory wheezes. Chest x-ray reveals hyperinflated lungs but no infiltrates. Complete blood count shows leukocytes at 11,000/mm3. The patient is started on continuous albuterol and ipratropium nebulizers, as well as intravenous magnesium and methylprednisolone. Repeat examination an hour later is notable for respirations at 36/min, persistently decreased breath sounds, and no wheezing. Results of an arterial blood gas test on 3 L/min of oxygen are as follows:
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Continuation of current therapy
B) Endotracheal intubation
C) Intravenous antibiotics
D) Intravenous theophylline
E) Subcutaneous epinephrine
Correct Answer:
Verified
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