A 60-year-old woman is brought to the hospital due to lethargy and confusion that have progressed over the last 2 days. This morning she was hard to arouse. The patient's husband says that she has lost 4.5 kg (10 lb) over the preceding 2-month period and has had a dry cough. She has no other medical problems and takes no medication. The patient has a 40-pack-year smoking history. She does not drink alcohol. Temperature is 37 C (98.6 F) , blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 75/min, and respirations are 16/min. She is not orthostatic. The patient is markedly confused. Her mucous membranes are moist. There is no jugular venous distension. Breath and heart sounds are normal. Neurologic examination shows no focal abnormalities. There is no ankle edema or ascites. Laboratory results are as follows:
Serum osmolality is 250 mOsm/kg H2O, and urine osmolality is 500 mOsm/kg H2O. Chest x-ray reveals a mass in the right hilar region. CT scan of the head is unremarkable. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Hypertonic saline
B) Intravenous 0.45% solution
C) Intravenous desmopressin
D) Intravenous hydrocortisone
E) Mannitol therapy
F) Normal saline
G) Sodium bicarbonate therapy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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