A 67-year-old man comes to the office due to 2 days of back pain. He was moving boxes in his garage when the pain started. The pain is not relieved by lying down and increases in intensity when straining and coughing. He cannot sleep at night due to pain and has taken acetaminophen several times without relief. He has never had such pain before. Physical examination shows 2+ symmetrical knee and ankle jerk reflexes. Straight leg raising test is negative. There is point tenderness to palpation and percussion along the midline at the fourth lumbar vertebra. Which of the following is the most likely underlying etiology of this patient's current condition?
A) Apophyseal joint arthritis
B) Intervertebral disc degeneration
C) Ligamentous sprain
D) Loss of bone mineral density
E) Nerve root demyelination
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q494: A 29-year-old woman comes to the office
Q495: An 8-year-old boy is brought to the
Q496: A 15-month-old full-term boy is brought to
Q497: A 50-year-old man comes to the office
Q498: A 53-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q500: A 67-year-old woman comes to the office
Q501: A 22-year-old woman comes to the office
Q502: A 52-year-old man comes to the clinic
Q503: A 35-year-old Caucasian female presents to the
Q504: In a large population with an almost
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents