An 81-year-old woman comes to the office for follow-up of type 2 diabetes mellitus, which has been well controlled on a stable medication regimen for several years. Medical history is notable for hypertension and osteoporosis. Six months ago, she suffered a nondisplaced orbital fracture. She is widowed and has lived with her daughter and son-in-law for the last year. She claims that she is independent and "takes care" of herself. Blood pressure is 176/102 mm Hg and pulse is 84/min. Examination shows bruising at the right forearm and right flank. No cardiac murmurs are heard. Abdominal examination is unremarkable. Gait is steady and the patient does well on the Timed Up and Go test. Laboratory results show a fasting glucose of 220 mg/dL and hemoglobin A1c of 9%. Four months ago, glucose was 105 mg/dL and hemoglobin A1c was 7.2%. On further discussion, the patient says, "The pharmacy charges me too much these days. I just can't afford my medication anymore." Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's clinical findings?
A) Alcohol abuse
B) Early-stage dementia
C) Elder abuse
D) Late-life depression
E) Nutritional deficiency
F) Psychotic disorder
Correct Answer:
Verified
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