A 22-year-old college student comes to the clinic due to a solitary penile lesion. Three days ago, he noticed a small red papule, and it has been enlarging. The patient has been sexually active with 1 female partner over the preceding 6 months and consistently uses condoms. He has had no prior sexually transmitted infections but does get occasional shallow, tender ulcers along his inner lip once or twice a year. Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F) . There is a nontender, nonexudative, 2-cm circular ulcer at the dorsal base of the penile shaft. Palpation reveals nontender enlargement of the inguinal lymph nodes measuring 2.5 cm on the left and 2 cm on the right. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient's penile lesion?
A) Azithromycin
B) Ceftriaxone
C) Doxycycline
D) Penicillin
E) Valacyclovir
Correct Answer:
Verified
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