A 24-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, comes to the office due to not having a menstrual period for 2 months. She gave birth to a healthy boy 8 months ago. She breastfed for a month and has since been formula-feeding. Since the delivery, the patient has received 2 medroxyprogesterone injections for contraception; the last was administered 4 months ago. Over the last 2 weeks, she has begun experiencing breast soreness, weight gain, and increasing fatigue. Menarche occurred at age 14; menses were regular prior to her pregnancy but have been irregular since starting the medroxyprogesterone. The patient requests a different form of contraception due to these symptoms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Administer a urine pregnancy test
B) Advise the patient that symptoms will improve
C) Measure TSH level
D) Place a subdermal progestin implant
E) Recommend a copper intrauterine device
Correct Answer:
Verified
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