A 17-year-old girl comes to the office for evaluation of right knee pain. For the past 3 months, the patient has had poorly localized, achy pain at the anterior right knee that is worse when she runs, sits for extended periods, or goes up or down a staircase. She has been taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, which partially relieve the pain but have lost effectiveness over time. The patient also has a sensation that the knee is "giving way" when she is running. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 19 kg/m2. Physical examination shows a normal gait and no visible knee deformities. There is mild pain with flexion of the right knee. With the knee extended, compressing the patella into the trochlear groove reproduces the pain. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Hinged knee brace
B) Intraarticular glucocorticoid injection
C) Knee immobilizer
D) Nonweight-bearing crutches for 2 weeks
E) Quadriceps strengthening exercises
Correct Answer:
Verified
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